To find the derivative of the given function, π(π₯) = π^π₯^2 β sin(π₯), we can use the product rule. The product rule states that if we have two functions, π’(π₯) and π£(π₯), then the derivative of their product is given by:
π(π’(π₯)β π£(π₯))/ππ₯ = π’(π₯)β ππ£(π₯)/ππ₯ + π£(π₯)β ππ’(π₯)/ππ₯.
In our case, π’(π₯) = π^π₯^2 and π£(π₯) = sin(π₯). Let's find the derivatives of these two functions first.
The derivative of π’(π₯) = π^π₯^2 can be found using the chain rule. The chain rule states that if we have a function π(π₯) = π(π’(π₯)), then the derivative of π(π₯) with respect to π₯ is given by:
ππ(π₯)/ππ₯ = ππ(π’(π₯))/ππ’(π₯) β ππ’(π₯)/ππ₯.
In our case, π(π₯) = π^π₯^2 and π(π’) = π^π’. So, applying the chain rule, we have:
ππ(π₯)/ππ₯ = ππ(π’)/ππ’ β ππ’(π₯)/ππ₯ = π^π’ β 2π₯.
Since π’ = π₯^2, we can substitute π’ in terms of π₯:
ππ(π₯)/ππ₯ = π^(π₯^2) β 2π₯.
Next, let's find the derivative of π£(π₯) = sin(π₯). The derivative of sin(π₯) is cos(π₯). Therefore:
ππ£(π₯)/ππ₯ = cos(π₯).
Now, let's apply the product rule to find the derivative of π(π₯) = π^π₯^2 β sin(π₯):
π(π(π₯))/ππ₯ = π’(π₯)β ππ£(π₯)/ππ₯ + π£(π₯)β ππ’(π₯)/ππ₯ = π^(π₯^2)β cos(π₯) + sin(π₯)β 2π₯.
Therefore, the derivative of π(π₯) = π^π₯^2 β sin(π₯) is π^(π₯^2)β cos(π₯) + sin(π₯)β 2π₯.
I hope this explanation helps! Let me know if you have any further questions.
References:
- Khan Academy. (n.d.). Product rule. Retrieved from https://www.khanacademy.org/math/ap-calculus-ab/ab-differentiation-1-new/ab-2-1/v/product-rule
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